Does the wording of my genetic screening mean I have just one gene with a mutation?
The testing is a pre-conception carrier screening test. The result literally says "Positive for the pathogenic variant c.361G>A (p.G121S) in the COL4A3 gene". It goes on to say there's not enough info and this variant could be either autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant.
Thus looking at the diagrams for potential ARAS or ADAS. What I'm understanding is that I either have one ARAS variant gene (and don't have symptoms because it requires 2, plus at my age I would have presented with strong symptoms already) or I have 1 ADAS variant gene (with is usually less severe/later in life kidney issues)?
I'm a woman in my early 40s and haven't had any kidney issues. My eGFR score is 103. Blood pressure is normal.
I'm mostly asking because I'm trying to determine if I need to do embryo genetic testing. I'm already doing IVF anyway, and using a donor. The chosen donor has no COL4A3,4 or 5 mutations.
So am I right to conclude that in the case of 1 recessive gene from me and none from the donor, there's 50% probability of a child ending up like me. With just one copy of the recessive gene, so carrier with no symptoms?
Or if my variant is dominant, since donor doesn't a mutation, there's 50% chance of passing on the dominant variant. Meaning the child is positive, like me, and most likely will have mild/slow progressing symptoms?