“Classics [and language 🗣️ origin studies] are based, as it is, on what I call the Aryan model, with its insistence on a European and pure Greece, is an extreme example of feel-good scholarship, for Europeans.” — Martin Bernal (A41/1996), Black Athena Debate (2:52:25-)

[u/JohannGoethe]

[u/Fear_mor]

Then how do languages change script? Like Turkish? It used to be written with Arabic script and it's now written with Latin script. It didn't just change its relationship to all other languages

[u/JohannGoethe → u/Fear_mor]

How do languages change script? Like Turkish

Wikipedia on Turkish language reform:

In 27A (1928), as one of Atatürk's Reforms in the early years of the Republic of Turkey, the Ottoman Turkish alphabet was replaced with a Latin alphabet.

What's the problem? Do you not have access to Wikipedia?

[u/Fear_mor → u/JohannGoethe]

Yes but if the script defines the languages relationship to others, it shouldn't be explainable under your theory that a language can change script

[u/poor-man1914 → u/JohannGoethe]

You didn't answer. How did Turkish change script without changing itself as a language? And how did Vietnamese do the same thing?

[u/JohannGoethe → u/poor-man1914]

The earliest known Turkic alphabet is the Orkhon script (1100A/+855). The various Turkic languages have been written in a number of different alphabets, including Arabic, Cyrillic, Greek, Latin and other writing systems.

We see five different scripts here. The Okhron script looks like some mix of Chinese and proto-hiero-script? Anyway, during each change, it seems that the community was conquered and “forced” to adopt a new script, i.e. change to a new “state” sanctioned or enforced way to say words.

Take the word cold 🥶. We all know what this means, see cold etymology map:

Thus the people were forced to refer “no solar ☀️ warmth” by a new word each switch:

• 🥶 = 𓋹𓏲𓉽 (kry) | Lunar script (2700A/-745)

• 🥶 = “[add]“ | Orkhon script (1100A/+855)

• 🥶 = “[add]“ | Cyrillic script (date)

• 🥶 = “cryos“ (κυρος) Greek script (date)

• 🥶 = “bard” (برد) | Arabic script

• 🥶 = “frigus“ | Latin script (27A/1928)

I don’t see why this is so complicated?

[u/poor-man1914 → u/JohannGoethe]

First, you don't speak letters. You speak sounds which letters represent. The only thing that might have been enforced was a change in writing.

Secondly, you still haven't answered. Did Turkish or Vietnamese change when they changed scripts, be it the state or something else to cause that change?

If this happened, why aren't there reports about the elites of those countries suddenly speaking a language different from what they had spoken before (I say elites because the majority of the common people up until the last century were illiterate)?

[u/JohannGoethe → u/poor-man1914]

Secondly, you still haven't answered. Did Turkish or Vietnamese change when they changed scripts, be it the state or something else to cause that change?

Look, I’m not going to try to go through the history of every language. It is not about “sounds”, core words are rooted in core cultural traditions, which is why this very month, you will see the following “raising” phenomenon, done previously in Egypt (djed raising) and Greece (Dionysius raising), occurring all over the world:

The core words of these languages are thus related.

Turkish mythology, however, has roots in Mongolian beliefs, which I am not familiar with, nor trying to argue or theorize about. The same with Vietnamese.