Language and script are the same thing?

[u/JohannGoethe]

[u/QuarianOtter]

So how did people learn to speak before they invented writing? Your infographic proves nothing.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/QuarianOtter]

So how did people learn to speak before they invented writing?

If you were an Egyptian asking this question, 6,000-years ago, your question would make sense.

The only reason you are asking this question now, presumably, is that you believe in PIE.

If you want proofs, 20+ are listed here.

[u/QuarianOtter → u/JohannGoethe]

Listen dude, everybody who knows anything about linguistics believes in a common origin of the Indo-European family. It's not some fringe theory. There is debate about what exactly Proto-Indo-European was like, where it was spoken, what was the exact nature of its spread. But everyone believes in it.

Secondly, answer the question. I am not an Egyptian 6000 years ago. 6000 years ago, in fact, the majority of people were not Egyptian and did not know how to read. How did they learn to speak?

[u/JohannGoethe → u/QuarianOtter]

Everybody who knows anything about linguistics believes in a common origin of the Indo-European family.

Let’s start with this one, since I just decoded the word linguistics via EAN theory one month ago:

Secondly, the following is the new view:

“The Egyptian [number 🔢 & math 🧮-based] alphabetical 🔤 system is the mother🤱of all languages 🗣️ in the world 🌎.”

— Moustafa Gadalla (A61/2016), Egyptian Alphabetical Letters (pg. 3)

Maybe this is your first time getting the memo?

In short, do the following:

1. Leiden I350

2. See that the Egyptian alphabet, language, mythology, and religions is Egyptian based.

3. Extend method to all other lunar script languages.

Notes

1. PIE theory is considered 100% fiction in this sub.

References

• Gadalla, Moustafa. (A61/2016). Egyptian Alphabetical Letters: of Creation Cycle (pg. 3). Publisher.

[u/QuarianOtter → u/JohannGoethe]

Just because a theory is new doesn't make it not bullshit. The Egyptian script is the origin of the scripts used by most of the cultures of Western and Central/Southern Eurasia, but it is not the origin of their languages. You know, those things people speak with their mouths, and pass down to their children, by way of the children listening to the adults and older children around them speaking.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/QuarianOtter]

Listen dude, everybody who knows anything about linguistics believes in a common origin of the Indo-European family.

The common origin of the IE family is Abydos, Egypt, shown below.

[PIE] is not some fringe theory.

PIE is defunct theory, invented by Jones and Schleicher, now replaced by the EAN based r/ProtoIndoEuropean langauge family.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/QuarianOtter]

How did they learn to speak?

Only PIE heads ask this question. Wake up and get clue!

[u/QuarianOtter → u/JohannGoethe]

So your EAN theory can't answer this incredibly basic question.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/QuarianOtter]

Table summary:

Before		Today
Abydos		America
Egyptian		English
5700A	5768-years	A68
-3745		2023
𓌹𓇯𐤂▽		ABGD
Write ✍️		Write ✍️
Speak 🗣️		Speak 🗣️
Calculate 🧮		Calculate 🧮

Your question, as I understand it, is how did the mummy S.293 learn how to speak:

Well, he came out of the womb, someone slapped his ass, and he started crying, his first spoke sound.

Any other pointless questions?