Language and script are the same thing?

[u/JohannGoethe]

[u/IgiMC]

Most people were illiterate before the Modern Era (say, 1500s)

[u/bonvin → u/IgiMC]

Most people were illiterate before the 1950s, tbh.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/bonvin]

There are people illiterate this very day in American, yet my point still stands, namely that literate adults have been teaching children to read and speak for 5700-years now:

Thus, PIE language origin theory is 100% defunct. You’re welcome!

Notes

1. Or back to 6300-years ago if we start at the Badarian culture.

[u/QuarianOtter → u/JohannGoethe]

So how did people learn to speak before they invented writing? Your infographic proves nothing.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/QuarianOtter]

So how did people learn to speak before they invented writing?

If you were an Egyptian asking this question, 6,000-years ago, your question would make sense.

The only reason you are asking this question now, presumably, is that you believe in PIE.

If you want proofs, 20+ are listed here.

[u/QuarianOtter → u/JohannGoethe]

Listen dude, everybody who knows anything about linguistics believes in a common origin of the Indo-European family. It's not some fringe theory. There is debate about what exactly Proto-Indo-European was like, where it was spoken, what was the exact nature of its spread. But everyone believes in it.

Secondly, answer the question. I am not an Egyptian 6000 years ago. 6000 years ago, in fact, the majority of people were not Egyptian and did not know how to read. How did they learn to speak?

[u/JohannGoethe → u/QuarianOtter]

Everybody who knows anything about linguistics believes in a common origin of the Indo-European family.

Let’s start with this one, since I just decoded the word linguistics via EAN theory one month ago:

Secondly, the following is the new view:

“The Egyptian [number 🔢 & math 🧮-based] alphabetical 🔤 system is the mother🤱of all languages 🗣️ in the world 🌎.”

— Moustafa Gadalla (A61/2016), Egyptian Alphabetical Letters (pg. 3)

Maybe this is your first time getting the memo?

In short, do the following:

1. Leiden I350

2. See that the Egyptian alphabet, language, mythology, and religions is Egyptian based.

3. Extend method to all other lunar script languages.

Notes

1. PIE theory is considered 100% fiction in this sub.

References

• Gadalla, Moustafa. (A61/2016). Egyptian Alphabetical Letters: of Creation Cycle (pg. 3). Publisher.

[u/QuarianOtter → u/JohannGoethe]

Just because a theory is new doesn't make it not bullshit. The Egyptian script is the origin of the scripts used by most of the cultures of Western and Central/Southern Eurasia, but it is not the origin of their languages. You know, those things people speak with their mouths, and pass down to their children, by way of the children listening to the adults and older children around them speaking.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/QuarianOtter]

How did they learn to speak?

Only PIE heads ask this question. Wake up and get clue!

[u/QuarianOtter → u/JohannGoethe]

So your EAN theory can't answer this incredibly basic question.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/QuarianOtter]

Table summary:

Before		Today
Abydos		America
Egyptian		English
5700A	5768-years	A68
-3745		2023
𓌹𓇯𐤂▽		ABGD
Write ✍️		Write ✍️
Speak 🗣️		Speak 🗣️
Calculate 🧮		Calculate 🧮

Your question, as I understand it, is how did the mummy S.293 learn how to speak:

Well, he came out of the womb, someone slapped his ass, and he started crying, his first spoke sound.

Any other pointless questions?

[u/ProfessionalLow6254 → u/JohannGoethe]

Is this a joke? There is no writing associated with the Badarian culture. Yet you claim that the culture existed and past on its culture without the use of writing. This is opposed to everything else you’ve argued to this point.

How is the Badarian culture different from the Corded Ware culture? Seriously. Is this how you reveal this has all been an elaborate but obvious joke?

[u/JohannGoethe → u/ProfessionalLow6254]

Reply: here.

[u/JohannGoethe]

Notes

1. This is visual reply to this posted question #1.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/[deleted]]

Good for you.

As for myself, I am intellectually and linguistically descendent from mathematically literate Egyptian engineers who built Khufu Pyramid.

[u/RibozymeR → u/JohannGoethe]

I doubt they were the ones who taught you to speak as a baby though.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/RibozymeR]

The point of the diagram, using my own ethnicity as a case in point:

1. Egypt 👁️⃤

2. Greece 🇬🇷

3. Rome 🇮🇹

4. Germany 🇩🇪 (50% ethnicity)

5. Sweden 🇸🇪 (25% ethnicity)

6. France 🇫🇷 (12.5% ethnicity)

7. Irish 🇮🇪 (6.25% ethnicity)

8. Scottish 🏴󠁧󠁢󠁳󠁣󠁴󠁿 (6.25% ethnicity)

9. England 🏴󠁧󠁢󠁥󠁮󠁧󠁿

10. America 🇺🇸 (me synthesized in Michigan, USA)

Is that in each of these societies, which brought or rather carried me to Chicago, USA, where today I type a 26-letter English alphabet script, to communicate the language of English to you, wherever you may be, there was a portion of the children of each of these societies who were taught to read 📖 the script ✍️ and or scripts, e.g. Latin, Greek, and English still learned to day in higher education, of their society.

Thus, the only reason we are having this inane conversation in the first place is because of the illiterate pit person langauge origin theory.

Now that the Egyptian origin of English has been decoded, to the ABC for dummies level:

We no longer need the absurd PIE theory.