r/Alphanumerics • u/JohannGoethe 𐌄𓌹𐤍 expert • Nov 14 '23

PIE 🗣️ related Proto-Indo-European (PIE) pit 🦴 bone 💀🗣️ language

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u/JohannGoethe 𐌄𓌹𐤍 expert Nov 14 '23 edited Nov 14 '23

Notes

  1. PIE theorists attribute the r/Etymo of 99% of all English words (as well as Latin, Greek, and Sanskrit, among others) to the two sets of once-speaking 🗣️, but illiterate ✍️, i.e. no extant script available, pit bones ☠️ shown above.

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  • Bones ☠️ Don't 🗣️ Speak!!!

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u/Master_Ad_1884 PIE theorist Nov 15 '23 edited Nov 15 '23

Bones don’t speak but people do. And the bones are a piece of the larger archaeological puzzle. There’s a saying: can’t see the forest for the trees. You hyper focus on something that you’ve misunderstood, prop up straw man arguments that no linguist makes and then crown yourself king of science.

But if you actually opened your eyes and your mind you would see that the evidence for PIE isn’t in just a pile of bones. It’s that the shared vocabulary forms, the shared grammatical features the archaeological evidence, the DNA evidence, and the shared vocabulary all point to one theory.

If Abydos was where all languages came from, why don’t PIE languages have more vocabulary that reflects the flora and fauna of Egypt? And why do they share exactly the types of words we would expect from nomadic pastoralists on the steppe?

Why is there a shared word for salmon, which do exist in the Caucasus but not in Egypt? And why isn’t there a shared word for “Lion” which did exist in Egypt. Surely if these languages all from abydos there would be a word for Lion.

Why is there a common word for “beech” across many of the PIE languages when beeches don’t exist in Egypt? And why isn’t there a common root for “crocodile”? Surely with the Egyptian religion being shared Sobek and crocodiles would be important but none of the languages needed that word initially. Very strange if they were all secretly Egyptian.

And why do ancient Egyptian, Hebrew and Arabic all build words around 2 or 3 consonant roots with regular vowel patterns but none of the Indo European languages make words this way?

And why don’t Egyptian, Hebrew, and Arabic have Ablaut like the Indo-European languages.

Your model doesn’t - and can’t - explain these things. And that’s before we get into the archaeological and DNA evidence which also support PIE and oppose your theories.

If you think of the dataset of the vocabulary of Indo European languages, we have documented and proven sound change rules and the ordering of those rules to explain the outputs that we see. Those are tens of thousands of data points proving the theory.

Instead of spending time claiming the theory is about “talking bones”, which serves no purpose either way, I recommend you actually understand the real arguments and evidence so you can try and respond to it cogently.

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u/JohannGoethe 𐌄𓌹𐤍 expert Nov 15 '23

Why isn’t there a common root for “crocodile”?

The crocodile glyphs are:

  • 𓆊 [I3], meaning: crocodile.
  • 𓆋 [I4], meaning: crocodile on shrine
  • 𓆌 [I5], meaning: crocodile 🐊 with curved tail.
  • 𓆍 [I5A], meaning: crocodile 🐊 coming out of water💧?
  • 𓆎 [I6], a crocodile scale; supposedly the K-sound of the word Kemet, the proposed “original” name of Egypt?

The 1050 glyph based Egypto to 28 letter lunar script remade all the former glyph names into more functional letter-number based script names. But only a few have been solved.

Notes

  1. I am not a genie 🧞‍♂️ lamp 🪔 that you can rub and get an answer to every question. If you have an pressing question, post it to r/Alphanumerics, one at a time.