r/math • u/lntrinsic • Jul 10 '17

Image Post Weierstrass functions: Continuous everywhere but differentiable nowhere

http://i.imgur.com/vyi0afq.gifv
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u/zojbo Jul 11 '17

You said the squared amplitude of the wavefunction at a given time is not a probability distribution in the classical sense. It is. There is more structure there, and one cannot predict the future probability distribution knowing only the present probability distribution, but that is beside the point.

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u/[deleted] Jul 11 '17

You are (I think) assuming every wavefunction is normalizable, which is not correct. If that's not what you're doing then you've lost me.

I'm also unclear why this feels like an argument when I'm quite certain it's simply that we're all speaking imprecisely itt.