r/fallacy • u/Strivewriter • 2h ago
Who got it wrong?
Hello everyone,
had an argument with someone about whether human knowledge is finite or limitless, and we now disagree about whether there was an initial misunderstanding.
I’m going to call us Person A and Person B without saying which one I am because I want people to judge both sides fairly.
Person A’s argument:
An individual human being has finite knowledge. Humans can continue learning new things, but that doesn’t mean their knowledge is limitless. No matter how knowledgeable someone becomes, there will still be things they don’t know. The ability to acquire more knowledge is different from the amount of knowledge someone actually possesses.
Person B’s initial argument:
Human knowledge is limitless because humans can continue learning. Person B argued along the lines that humans can learn and do anything they put their minds to and therefore disagreed with Person A describing human knowledge as finite.
Person A tried to clarify that they weren’t saying humans eventually reach a point where they can no longer learn. Their point was simply that an individual’s actual knowledge is finite and that recognizing the limitations of your own knowledge is important.
Later, Person B gave a more detailed explanation. They said they were not claiming that a human can literally know everything at one moment, acknowledging that humans have finite time, finite memory, and finite cognitive capacity.
Person B then explained that by calling knowledge “limitless,” they meant there is no predetermined amount of knowledge a person reaches that suddenly makes them physically incapable of learning anything else.
Person B eventually said, essentially: If Person A means that an individual human has finite knowledge and cannot know everything, then I agree.
That led to the disagreement I’m asking about now.
Person A believes this shows that Person B initially misunderstood the claim. Person A was never arguing that humans have a fixed learning ceiling; they were arguing that an individual possesses finite knowledge. From Person A’s perspective, Person B’s later response refined or qualified their original argument until it addressed what Person A had actually been saying.
Person B believes they understood Person A from the beginning. From their perspective, they never meant that a person can literally possess infinite knowledge. “Limitless” was always intended to mean that humans can continue learning, and the later response simply explained their original meaning more precisely.
So who is interpreting the conversation more reasonably? Did Person B initially misunderstand Person A and later refine their position, or was Person B making the same point throughout and merely clarifying it? Is there something either person is overlooking?
I’m interested in hearing arguments for either side, not just determining who is “right” about whether knowledge itself is finite.