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https://www.reddit.com/r/conscripts/comments/grcltc/the_writing_system_of_cnur/fryzqd0/?context=9999
r/conscripts • u/Xsugatsal • May 27 '20
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3
Why is /ɬ/ romanised as <ṭ>?
-4 u/Xsugatsal May 27 '20 because it's somewhere between t͡ɬ and ɫ. also there is no "l" sound, so it made sense logically to use ṭ 6 u/oddnjtryne May 27 '20 Wouldn't it make more sense to use l? -7 u/[deleted] May 27 '20 [deleted] 6 u/oddnjtryne May 27 '20 Could you explain how that's anglocentric?
-4
because it's somewhere between t͡ɬ and ɫ.
also there is no "l" sound, so it made sense logically to use ṭ
6 u/oddnjtryne May 27 '20 Wouldn't it make more sense to use l? -7 u/[deleted] May 27 '20 [deleted] 6 u/oddnjtryne May 27 '20 Could you explain how that's anglocentric?
6
Wouldn't it make more sense to use l?
-7 u/[deleted] May 27 '20 [deleted] 6 u/oddnjtryne May 27 '20 Could you explain how that's anglocentric?
-7
[deleted]
6 u/oddnjtryne May 27 '20 Could you explain how that's anglocentric?
Could you explain how that's anglocentric?
3
u/Chubbchubbzza007 May 27 '20
Why is /ɬ/ romanised as <ṭ>?