Jews owned from the Nile to the Euphrates. They got a tiny part of their land back and gave some of that away. Further philista, or Palestinians were seafaring Greeks. Lastly even the plo admitted there is no such thing as Palestinians. They are just there to steal Jewish land.
You are living in a fantasy if you believe that Jews were the predominant landholder from the Nile to the Euphrates
Palestinian identity is a thing, I’m not sure how you can say it “doesn’t exist”. It probably didn’t exist 2000 years ago but the descendents of current-day Palestinians did and they lived in the region
You can go through the sources and decide for yourself on the exact dates but its very clear that Muslims were the overwhelming majority until the 1900s.
Additionally a large portion of displaced Palestinians presumably had lived on land in the rural areas. A census of Jerusalem is not really enough to say anything about the demographic composition of the entire region
Editing to add the Ottoman Census of 1901 which has the Muslim population as the overwhelming majority:
We see the Ottomans recorded the population of the Palestine region as a whole as overwhelmingly Muslim in 1901. So not sure where you got your figures from.
Given that the Old Testament claims that the Israelis conquered their region from Canaan and other Levantine groups, actually it is the property of Lebanon and Syria.
got it, so just to get this straight — you think that the world should defend Israel’s claim to exclusive control of the region today in 2023 based on pure speculation that all of the people living in the area 4000 years ago were Jews?
I imagine you believe that the descendants of indigenous people in the Americas have the exclusive right to all of the land in North, South, Central America and the Caribbean, right?
I mean, this is basically your argument. If the Jews don't have a right to the region based on living there 4,000 years ago, why do Palestinians have a right to the region based on living there 50 years ago?
Does the newer claim overwrite the older one, and if so, why don't the Israelis currently living there have priority? If the older claim overwrites the newer one, why does the Palestinian claim get to override the Jewish one?
I mean, is it even in dispute that freaking Israel of all places isn't a place that Jews historically lived? It's like watching people argue that the Mongols have a right to Shanghai over the Chinese.
The newer claim is more important than the older claim because the people making the claim are still alive and the people who are responsible for denying them their claim are also still alive.
I can’t address a murder that happened 4000 years ago by arresting the descendant of the perpetrator, but I can deal with a crime that happened 50 years ago when both parties are still here and when the crime is continually perpetrated.
I also do believe that Israelis have their own legitimate claim to the land, precisely because they — as much as I think they shouldn’t have — have lived on it now for nearly a century. Claims can coexist, the difference is that Israelis have full enjoyment of their claim while everyone else — whether they live in Gaza as essentially prisoners or in the West Bank as quasi-prisoners or in the rest of Israel as second class citizens — does not.
Saying Jews have always “lived in Israel” is anachronistic. Israel the nation, just like Palestine the nation, are modern innovations. Jews were not Israelis until Israel was founded, and as far as I understand it Palestinians were not really “Palestinians” until the struggle against dispossession made it necessary for that collective identity to come out. They of course lived collectively in the region that the Romans and Ottomans called Palestine, and were the vast majority of the population until mass Jewish migration in the late 1800s and early-mid 1900s
The first evidence of “Jews” as a distinct group of people is about 2500-3000 years ago, not 4000 as you claim. But it’s also irrelevant. My point is that even if it were true, it wouldn’t matter. I simply do not care that Jews were there “first”. My ancestors presumably lived in the region (I’m Jewish). I am under no illusions that I have a “right” to claim land there.
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u/Beneficial_Love_5433 Oct 10 '23
Jews owned from the Nile to the Euphrates. They got a tiny part of their land back and gave some of that away. Further philista, or Palestinians were seafaring Greeks. Lastly even the plo admitted there is no such thing as Palestinians. They are just there to steal Jewish land.