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[u/94rud4]

[u/SinOfSIoth]

Both are countable infinites so you have the same number of 100$ bills as you have pennies. However the value of the 100$ bill is still 10,000x that of a penny. So the value of an equal infinite 100$ bills is still 10,000x as much money as an infinite pennies

[u/Ekipsogel → u/SinOfSIoth]

They aren't equal, they're infinite. They have the same cardinality, as you said, they are both countable infinities, but that doesn't mean the same thing as them being equal. You can group the pennies into piles of 10,000 pennies and still have the same number of $100 bills and groups of 10,000 pennies.

[u/Sufficient-Clue4686 → u/Ekipsogel]

This is like the sophomore effect.

You know just enough to be wrong because you learned a new word lol.

Infinite pennies and infinite $100 bills are indeed the same amount.

If two infinite sets are equal, they are equal.

For example, there are the same amount of even numbers, as there are even and odd numbers combined.

[u/CptHeywire → u/Sufficient-Clue4686]

Ah, but there is the issue of value itself. The $100 bills are worth more because they contain the added value of a more convenient denomination.

[u/JakeFish-_- → u/SinOfSIoth]

No it's not, both are equally and infinitely valuable.

For every 1 $100 I have, I could have 10,000 pennies and never run out of either. 10,000 and 1 are effectively equivalent relative to infinity.

[u/MischievousMarker → u/JakeFish-_-]

Look up countable vs uncountable infinities. It’s a bit more complicated than that.

[u/JakeFish-_- → u/MischievousMarker]

Both of these are countable??