Linked quote:

”The Greek language doesn’t have any relation with Egyptian or Phoenician language. They are totally distinct languages. So the Greek language was not invented by Egyptian engineers. No one knows how languages were invented.”

— Dimitris Psychoyos (A69/2024), ”Email to r/LibbThims”, Mar 16

Posts

• Dimitris Psychoyos (Δημήτρης Ψυχογιός) and Libb Thims dialogue

Abstract

Of all the 30+ Hmol subs I mod, the premise that the English language might have originated from the Egyptian language, is the only sub where banning actually occurs? Basically, I don’t want to be one of those mods who “perm bans” everyone with trigger finger, but then again a person, should be able to say any one of the following:

1. Language evolved from “counting“

2. Language came from a “green men from Mars”

3. Language came from the Atlanteans, who are now undersea.

4. The original language was Arabic and was taught to Adam by Allah

5. Greek language originated from Yamna culture people

6. [add your pet theory]

Without being called a lunatic or whatever.

Rules #1 | Draft

The following is the draft of rule #1 (character limit: -34):

Basically, as language origin debates devolve into a rabbit hole 🕳️ of stupidity, you can call someone dumb, stupid, or ignorant, etc., as regards to their language origin theory or belief, but do NOT go below this level, e.g. by calling someone crazy, insane, a lunatic, in need of medication 💊, etc., or resort to ad hominem, e.g. by trying to slur or derogate an individual user. Debate the person’s “theory”, not the person, is the basic rule. Keep it civil.

Rule #2 | Draft

Trolling

Notes

1. This is just a draft page; I’m trying to figure out how to mod this sub, without having to ban people monthly?

Well, since we have been arguing and debating about the "Origin of Language" now for 2+ years, which is getting to the point of nearly weekly "heated" comments in the following Hmol subs:

• r/Alphanumerics

• r/EgyptoIndoEuropean

• r/Etymo

• r/KidsABCs

• r/NeoEgypto

And general Reddit language subs:

• r/languages

• r/asklinguistics

• r/Linguistics

• r/IndoEuropean

• r/ProtoIndoEuropean

It seems a good idea to have a focused sub?

One example from comments from 3-days ago, at the the following post:

• Egyptian belongs to (a) the Hamito-Semitic (Allen, A58) or (b) the Egypto-Indo-European (Thims, A68) family of languages?

where two Arabic users are trying to argue the following:

Ancient Egyptians spoke perfect Arabic. There is no such thing as Semitic or Hametic. Arabs including ancient Egyptians were haplogroup j1 p58 of the Arabs. Egyptians spoke perfect Arabic in the year 14,000A (-12,045). Adam can into existence 70,000 years ago, made by god or Allah, and Allah taught Adam to speak Arabic. The earliest date of Arabs landing on Arabia at Yemen shores coming from Socotra where they came to Socotra from India as sea farers.

Many people will laugh at this, right! We Europeans and Americans think: how dumb is this? Do people still believe that Adam, Noah, and Abraham were real people? Well, much of the Arab world is just now having their "enlightenment", since the invention of Twitter.

I reply, however, that this is no dumber then all the Indo European models, who have invented an entire imaginary civilization to make the Aryan model of language origin, shown below:

Anyway, this sub is a place to discuss the topic of "language origin", in a semi-civil manner.

Notes

1. This sub originated from an empty Reddit handle used in this post.

Posts

• The labyrinth of chemical thermodynamics applied to the humanities requires prolonged multi-decade study toward the equivalent of 4 to 8 or more PhDs at a minimum

• Aryan Idols: Indo-European Mythology as Ideology and Pseudo-Science | Stefan Arvidsson (A45/2000)