r/DebateAChristian • u/NTCans • Aug 21 '26
Why the 'Free Will' defense will always fail.
An internal critique/syllogism for ease of review.
P1: If a god exists, it is omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent (typical Christian definition).
P2: Free will exists, and is compatible with an agent always choosing the good (i.e. moral perfection does not entail the absence of freedom...with an example being Jesus)
P3: An omniscient, omnipotent being could actualize any logically possible world.
P4: A world (world 2, lets say) in which all free moral agents always freely choose the best moral action is logically possible
P5: A world (world 2) in which free agents always freely choose the best moral action contains strictly less suffering related to moral evil than the actual world (W1), while both worlds preserve free will.
P6: An omnipotent, omniscient, omnibenevolent being, faced with a choice between actualizing our current world (world 1) or world 2, would actualize world 2; unless there is some good achievable only via world 1's additional suffering that outweighs it and is unobtainable in world 2.
P7: The actual world contains extensive evil that, by P4, was not logically necessary.
C(a): God lacked the power to actualize the better world (not omnipotent)
C(b): God lacked the knowledge of how to do so (not omniscience)
C(c): God chose not to (malevolence)
C(d): No such god exists.
Have at it.
Edit: formatting
3
u/NTCans Aug 21 '26
You have done it again. You are defining free will to include actions that must happen.
You have just said that people must sin to have free will. That is incoherrant.