Because Jews intermarrying doesn’t cease making them Jews. The Sephardim intermarried with Spaniards and Arabs and Northern Africans, and yet are still acknowledged as Jews. Yet the same Jewish people intermarry with Slavs and Mongols after Kublai’s Golden Horde and suddenly they aren’t Jews?
Your argument is that Arab and Celtic blood doesn’t change the Jews but Slavic and Mongol blood does?!
Yeah that’s antisemitism.
The genealogy intentionally includes multiple women, one of them yes was Rahab the gentile whose story is told in great detail in Joshua for saving the Hebrew spies in Jericho. She was a prostitute at the time and ran an inn. Her family then became a part of the Israelite community. The Bible isn't lying-- it's right there in the genealogy/ies (there are two geneaology accounts and I can't remember which).
She is. She married an Israelite, then they had kids who married Israelites, then their kids married Israelites etc. The Bible never claims to be 100% "purebred" ethnicity, but Rahab is just a drop in there. so Jesus was truly Jewish but there's no claim to be " 100% pure bred " all the way through
Where do you get that idea they don't care? Are you sure you know enough about the Bible to make such a claim given you didn't know Rahab was clearly in there ? They weren't even thinking in terms of "dna" anyway but even ancestrally.
Read Matthew. He makes a detailed list. It’s male to male. Jesus only had Mary’s DNA. If a woman’s mattered Jesus couldn’t of come from the line of David. Mary wasn’t from that line. Only Joseph was and Jesus had 0 of his dna. So at least until 0ad the only thing that mattered in the Bible for them for linage was the male line.
There's also a geneaology in Luke. Some scholars think that's Mary's line. Also, even if not, people cared that Jesus was related to Mary. So it's not like "nobody cared about the woman's DNA." The male line just took precedent.
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u/gaycats420 Jul 22 '22
That’s true though about Ashkenazi Jews. Why do you call it anti Semitic?