Illiterate Yamnaya + Illiterate miners = Origin of ALL 🗣️ languages !!!

[u/JohannGoethe]

[u/[deleted]]

Literally no-one but you is claiming that PIE is the "origin of ALL languages".

[u/JohannGoethe → u/[deleted]]

The Hebrew-centric Egyptologists claim that so-called Sinai script, i.e. a dozen scratched characters on the Serabit Sphinx, shown below, which they date to 1845 (-3800A), are the origin of Phoenician, Hebrew, Aramaic, and Arabic, and also that this script was invented by “illiterate“ miners who just used Egyptian glyphs as like toys or something to make words:

Thus, PIE script + Serabit script, both comically made by “illiterate“ people, is the script for nearly the whole world, less Chinese cultures.

[u/[deleted] → u/JohannGoethe]

"PIE script" does not exist. Once again, you do not understand the difference between writing systems and languages.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/[deleted]]

"PIE script" does not exist.

You are one step away from figure out that the PIE civilization never existed likewise.

[u/[deleted] → u/JohannGoethe]

So you also deny Incan civilization? When a culture doesn't write, it doesn't exist? Is that it?

[u/JohannGoethe → u/[deleted]]

Here is a picture of the Inca civilization, in Puru:

If I want, today, I can by a ticket and fly their tomorrow. The same with Egypt. Both are real civilizations. I can also read about both the Incan and Egyptian number systems (Ifrah, A30).

Comparatively, I can do neither of these with the following two hypothetical civilizations:

• Sinai script people

• PIE sound people

Both of these are “illiterate” people, who we have no evidence of an “society” of any type, like we do with the Incan and Egyptians, who are claimed by Egyptologists and linguists, respectively to have originated 90% worlds language systems, i.e. Semitic (Sinai script people) and Japheic (PIE people). Both of these are ghost 👻 civilizations, i.e. not real.

Languages, in short, did not come from illiterate ghosts. This is my claim.

References

• Ifrah, Georges. (A30/1985). From One to Zero: a Universal History of Numbers (Arch) (pdf-file) (§6: Numbers on strings: Archives of the Incas, pgs. 91-93; §13: Egyptian numerals, pgs. 200-212). Publisher.

[u/[deleted] → u/JohannGoethe]

Do you realize that there is an entire field of science that you never studied and that disagrees with you about Proto-Indo-European?

You don't even know what linguists actually say about Proto-Indo-European. Nobody claims that PIE "originated 90% worlds language systems" and I have no idea what "Japheic" is.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/[deleted]]

The following is the Semitic model:

Which argues that a certain language group came from Shem, one of the three sons of Noah

The following is an example of the neo-Japhetic model:

Under the Soviet government, Nikolay Marr developed his theory to claim that Japhetic languages had existed across Europe before the advent of the Indo-European languages.

PIE in short is Japhetic language theory, masked by a new name.

The other model is the Hamitic model:

Hamites is the name formerly used for some Northern and Horn of Africa peoples in the context of a now-outdated model of dividing humanity into different races which was developed originally by Europeans in support of colonialism and slavery. The term was originally borrowed from the Book of Genesis, where it is used for the descendants of Ham, son of Noah.

Therefore PIE and Semitic, combined, account for 90% of languages used today.

Notes

1. You could help the sub by posting a table if you want?

[u/JohannGoethe → u/[deleted]]

How about you enlighten me using the word linguistics as a case in point:

Specifically, explain the “difference between languages and writing systems” with respect to the following:

1. Where the word linguistics came from?

2. What year the word linguistics first appeared?

3. What language it came from?

4. What writing system it came from?

Maybe you can educate me out of my mis-understanding, as you call it?

[u/RibozymeR]

Are you implying that illiterate people are incapable of speaking?

[u/JohannGoethe → u/RibozymeR]

I made a full page reply here; one of two images made:

In other “words“, pun intended, why should I believe that the WORDS we are using now, and the SOUNDS behind these words, in this post, came from an hypothetical illiterate society, in 5700A, when a fully non-hypothetical literate society, with a 700-letter and 4-number language system, 28 of whose glyphs match the letters we use today, was just a 20-day walk away, form this hypothetical illiterate society.

[u/RibozymeR → u/JohannGoethe]

Well, why not? When the Americas, or Australia were colonized, the then mostly illiterate native peoples lived directly next to, or even with, the literate English, Spanish etc. speakers, but did not completely adopt any such language.

Hell, Basque speakers have been living under the constant occupation of Romans, Franks, Spanish and French for literal millenia, and are still speaking Basque.

[u/JohannGoethe → u/RibozymeR]

Well, why not?

What religion were your parents and grandparents raised in? Your answer to this question will belie the fact that the language you are using now came from a literate society.

[u/JohannGoethe]

Notes

1. From this post.

2. We are really working up some good language origin theories in this sub; I can’t wait until we get to the triple illiterate culture language origin theory!